CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - IV Paper 2

Question Paper 21 Pages

Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced)

Concept Recapitulation Test

HHP

Contributed by

Heena Hari Pandey

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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - IV

Paper 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes
specifically for this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of
the test.

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 to 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more correct
answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Section-A (09 to 16) contains 4 paragraphs with each having 2 questions. Each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-A (17 – 20) contains 4 Matching Lists Type questions: Each question has four
statements in LIST I & 4 statements in LIST II. The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D)
out of which only one is correct. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and

– 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

FIITJEE

JEE (Advanced), 2014

From Classroom/Integrated School Programs 7 in Top 20, 23 in Top 100, 54 in Top 300, 106 in Top 500 All India Ranks & 2314 Students from Classroom
/Integrated School Programs & 3723 Students from All Programs have been Awarded a Rank in JEE (Advanced), 2013
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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2

Planck constant h = 6.6 10

34
J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6  10

19
C
Mass of electron m
e
= 9.1  10

31
kg
Permittivity of free space 
0
= 8.85  10

12
C
2
/N-m
2
Density of water 
water
= 10
3
kg/m
3

Atmospheric pressure P
a
= 10
5
N/m
2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K

1
mol

1
CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K

1
mol

1

= 0.0821 Lit atm K

1
mol

1

= 1.987  2 Cal K

1
mol

1

Avogadro's Number N
a
= 6.023  10
23

Planck’s constant h = 6.625  10

34
Js
= 6.625  10
–27
ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10
–27
kg
1 eV = 1.6  10
–19
J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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P
P
h
h
y
y
s
s
i
i
c
c
s
s PART – I

SECTION – A
Single Correct Answer Type

This section contain 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Velocity time graph of a particle undergoing rectilinear motion
is plotted as shown in the figure. Average acceleration of
particle is zero between time intervals.
(A) 0 and t
1
(B) t
1
and t
2

(C) t
1
and t
3
(D) t
2
and t
4

t
4

t
3

t
2

t
1

5

10

15

t (s)

v (m/s)

2. A heavy string of mass m hangs between two
fixed points A and B at the same level. The
tangents to the string at A and B are at an angle 
with the horizontal as shown in the figure. The
tension in the string at lowest point is





B

A

(A)
mg
2sin

(B)
mg
2cos


(C)
mg
2tan

(D)
mg
2 cot


3. The kinetic energy of a body moving along a straight line varies with time
as shown in the figure. The force acting on the body is
(A) zero
(B) constant
(C) directly proportional to velocity
(D) inversely proportional to velocity.

KE

t

4. In the figure shown, a string is wound over a cylinder A. The other end of
the string is attached to block B through a pulley. When the system is
released the cylinder rolls down without slipping. The ratio of magnitude of
vertical component of displacement of A and B in any time interval t is
(A) sin : 1 (B) sin  : 2
(C) cos  : 1 (D) cos  : 2



A

B

Space for Rough work

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5. Six stars of equal mass are moving about the centre of mass of the system such that they are
always on the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a. Their common time period will be
(A) 4
3
a
Gm
(B) 2
 
3
4 3a
Gm 5 3 4


(C) 4
3
3a
Gm
(D) None of these

6. The end of a chain of length L and mass per unit length

, which is piled up on a horizontal
platform is lifted vertically with a constant velocity u by a variable force F. Find F as a function of
height x of the end above platform.
(A)


2
gx 2u
  (B)


2
2gx u
  
(C)


2
gx u
  (D)


2
u gx
 

7. In the arrangement of rigid links of equal length l, they
can freely rotate about the joined ends as shown in the
figure. If the end U is pulled horizontally with constant
speed 20 m/s, find the approx. speed of end P when the
angle SUT is 90
o
.
(A) 5 m/s
(B) 10 m/s
(C) 7.1 m/s
(D) 14.12 m/s

P
Q
R
S
T
U
O

8. Air is blown through a pipe AB at a rate of 1600 cm
3
/sec. The
cross-section area of the broad portion of pipe is 4 cm
2
and that
of narrow portion is 2 cm
2
. The difference in water length is
(
air

= 1.4 kg/m
3
,
water
 = 10
3
kg/m
3
)
(A) 1.6 mm (B) 3 mm
(C) 3.6 mm (D) None

A
B
v
P

v
Q

Space for Rough work

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Comprehension Type

This section contains 4 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10

At certain pressure and 127
0
C temperature the mean kinetic energy of hydrogen molecules is
8  10
-21
J. (Mass of hydrogen atom = 1.7  10
-27
kg & atomic weight of nitrogen = 14). Then

9. Root mean square speed of hydrogen molecule at 27C is
(A) 0.88  10
4
m/sec (B) 1.88  10
4
m/sec.
(C) 1.88  10
3
m/sec. (D) 2.88  10
3
m/sec

10. The rms speed of nitrogen molecules at 27
0
C is
(A) 5.02  10
2
m/sec. (B) 5.02  10
4
m/sec.
(C) 2.51  10
2
m/sec. (D) 2.51  10
3
m/sec.

Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12

A ‘U’ shaped uniform rod of each of side having length ‘’ and
mass ‘m’ is hinged from the one end of one of its limbs as
shown.






m

m


m

(0, 0)

11. The Y
cm
of the given system is
(A) 2L/3 (B) 2L/3
(C) L/8 (D) L/3

12. If the system is displace by small angle then time period of oscillation is
(A)
3
5g


(B)
6
2
5g



(C)
6
5g


(D)
3
2
5g



Space for Rough work

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Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14

Two long parallel wires carrying currents 2.5 amp and I amp in the same direction as shown in figure. An
electron moving with a velocity 4  10
5
m/sec. as shown in figure and experiences a force of magnitude
3.2  10
-20
N at the point R. Then

13. The value of current I is
(A) 2 amp.
(B) 8 amp.
(C) 4 amp.
(D) 1 amp.





e
v

R Q P
3m 2m
2.5 A I A

14. The position between PR at which a third long parallel wire carrying current 2.5 amp may be
placed such that magnetic induction at R is zero.
(A) at 1 m from R and the direction of current is inward.
(B) at 1 m from R and the direction of current is outward
(C) at 1 m from P and the direction of current is inward.
(D) at 1 m from P and the direction of current is outward

Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16

A tube of length  and radius R carries a steady flow of a fluid whose density is  and viscosity . The
velocity v of flow is given by v = v
0
[1  (r
2
/R
2
)], where r is the distance of flowing fluid from the axis. Then

15. Kinetic energy of the fluid within the volume of the tube is
(A)
2 2
0
1
R v
6
 
 (B)
2 2
0
1
R v
8
 

(C)
2 2
0
1
R v
4
 
 (D)
2 2
0
1
R v
3
 


16. The difference of pressure at the ends of the tube is
(A)
0
2
4 v
R


(B)
0
2
8 v
R



(C)
0
2
2 v
R


(D)
0
2
v
R



Space for Rough work

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Matching list Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the
lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

17. A block of mass m is placed on a rough horizontal surface having coefficient of friction . The
magnitude of external horizontal force applied on the block gradually increases. The force exerted
by the block on the surface is N. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
(P)
The magnitude of N
(1)
is less than or equal to
1
tan

( ).
(Q)
N is less than of equal to
(2)
decreases gradually.
(R)
The angle made by N with horizontal.
(3)
 
2
2
mg ( mg)
 
(S)
The angle made by N with vertical
(4)
increases gradually.

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 3 4 1

18. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
(P)
For the propagation of mechanical Wave
(1)
have zero displacement simultaneously
at some instant.
(Q)
In a stationary wave, all the particles
between two nodes.
(2)
no material medium is required
(R)
In a transverse progressive wave, all the
particles of the medium.
(3)
Material medium is required.
(S)
For the propagation of e.m. wave
(4)
have the same time period and
amplitude of vibration through out the
wave.

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Space for Rough work
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19. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
(P)
For a sustained interference pattern of
light.
(1)
amplitude of waves from the two
sources must be same.
(Q)
Newton’s corpuscular theory
(2)
could not explain the phenomenon of
interference of light.
(R)
Huygens wave theory
(3)
coherent source is required.
(S)
For maximum contrast in the sustained
interference pattern due to a YDSE.
(4)
could not explain photoelectric effect.

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 3 4 1

20. Four rays of light parallel to optic axis and their path after passing through an optical system are
shown in the following two columns. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
(P)

(1) Convex lens
(Q)

(2) Concave lens
(R)

(3) Convex mirror
(S)

(4) Concave mirror

Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 2 1 2
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 3 4 1
Space for Rough work

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C
C
h
h
e
e
m
m
i
i
s
s
t
t
r
r
y
y PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

1. Which of the following is correct for critical temperature?
(A) It is highest temp. at which liquid and vapour can coexist.
(B) Beyond the critical temp. there is no distinction between two phases and gas can not be
liquiefied by compression.
(C) At critical temp., the surface tension of the system is zero.
(D) At critical temp. the gas and the liquid phases have the different critical densities.

2. The correct expression(s) for an adiabatic process is/are:
(A)
1
2 1
1 2
T V
T V

 

 
 
(B)
1
2 1
1 2
P T
P T


 

 
 

(C)
1 1 2 2
P V P V
 
 (D)
1 1
1 1 2 2
P V P V
 


3. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its boiling point. On an average the molecules in the
two phases have equal.
(A) Intermolecular forces (B) Potential energy
(C) Kinetic energy (D) Both kinetic energy and potential energy.

4. Choose the correct statement(s):
(A) BeCO
3
is kept in the atmosphere of CO
2
since it is last thermally stable.
(B) Be dissolves in an alkali solution forming [Be(OH)
4
]
-2
.
(C) BeF
2
forms complex ion with NaF in which Be goes with cation.
(D) BeF
2
forms complex ion with NaF in which Be goes with anion.
Rough Work

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5. NH
3
can be obtained by
(A) Heating of NH
4
NO
3
or NH
4
NO
2

(B) Heating of NH
4
Cl or (NH
4
)
2
CO
3

(C) Heating of NH
4
NO
3
with NaOH
(D) Reaction of AlN or Mg
3
N
2
or CaCN
2
with H
2
O

6. Among the following, the ions having same magnetic moments are:
(A) [Ti(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(B) [Sc(H
2
O)
6
]
3+

(C) VO
2+
(D) [Mn(H
2
O)
6
]
+3

7. Which of the following reactions is feasible for the preparation of 1-propoxy-2-methyl propane.
(A) Williamson’s synthesis of (Me
2
CHCH
2
ONa + MeCH
2
CH
2
Cl)
(B) Williamson’s synthesis of (Me
2
CHCH
2
Cl + MeCH
2
CH
2
ONa)
(C) Alkoxy mercuration-demercuration of (Me
2
CH = CH
2
+ MeCH
2
CH
2
OH)
(D) Alkoxy mercuration-demercuration of propene with Me
2
CHCH
2
OH

8. Which of the following are correct reactions?
(A)
O
3
NH

NH
3
NaCNBH

NH
2

(B)
Br
3
NH

NH
2

(C)
Br
3
NaN

N
3
LAH

NH
2

(D)

Br
2
OH /H O


NH
2
N
O
O
K

Rough Work

Page 10

CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - IV Paper 2

CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - IV Paper 2

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