CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - I Paper 2

Question Paper 23 Pages
Exam Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced)
Concept Recapitulation Test
SAS
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    CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - I
    Paper 2
    Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
    Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes
    specifically for this purpose.
    You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of
    the test.
    INSTRUCTIONS
    A. General Instructions
    1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
    2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
    3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
    4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
    5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
    provided for rough work.
    6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
    devices, in any form, are not allowed.
    B. Filling of OMR Sheet
    1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
    on OMR sheet.
    2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
    Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
    3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
    C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
    (i) Section-A (01 to 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more correct
    answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
    Section-A (09 to 16) contains 4 paragraphs with each having 2 questions. Each question carries
    +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
    (ii) Section-A (17 – 20) contains 4 Matching Lists Type questions: Each question has four
    statements in LIST I & 4 statements in LIST II. The codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D)
    out of which only one is correct. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and
    – 1 mark for wrong answer.
    Name of the Candidate
    Enrolment No.
    ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
    FIITJEE
    JEE (Advanced), 2014
    From Classroom/Integrated School Programs
    7 in Top 20, 23 in Top 100, 54 in Top 300, 106 in Top 500 All India Ranks & 2314 Students from Classroom
    /Integrated School Programs & 3723 Students from All Programs have been Awarded a Rank in JEE (Advanced), 2013

    Page 1

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    Useful Data
    PHYSICS
    Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
    2
    Planck constant h = 6.6 10
    34
    J-s
    Charge of electron e = 1.6 10
    19
    C
    Mass of electron m
    e
    = 9.1 10
    31
    kg
    Permittivity of free space
    0
    = 8.85 10
    12
    C
    2
    /N-m
    2
    Density of water
    water
    = 10
    3
    kg/m
    3
    Atmospheric pressure P
    a
    = 10
    5
    N/m
    2
    Gas constant R = 8.314 J K
    1
    mol
    1
    CHEMISTRY
    Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K
    1
    mol
    1
    = 0.0821 Lit atm K
    1
    mol
    1
    = 1.987 2 Cal K
    1
    mol
    1
    Avogadro's Number N
    a
    = 6.023 10
    23
    Planck’s constant h = 6.625 10
    34
    Js
    = 6.625 10
    –27
    ergs
    1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
    1 calorie = 4.2 joule
    1 amu = 1.66 10
    –27
    kg
    1 eV = 1.6 10
    –19
    J
    Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
    N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
    Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
    Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
    Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
    Pb=82, U=92.
    Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
    F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
    Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
    Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
    Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

    Page 2

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    Physics PART – I
    SECTION – A
    Straight Objective Type
    This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
    (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
    1. A particle is projected from a point O in the horizontal surface OA
    with speed u and angle of projection . It just grazes the plane BC
    which makes an angle with the horizontal. The time taken by the
    projectile to reach p from the instant of projection is
    (A)
    2usin
    gcos
    (B)
    usin
    gcos
    (C)
    usin
    gcos
    (D) None of these.
    P
    C
    B
    O
    A
    2. A block of mass m is attached to a spring of force constant k whose other
    end is fixed to a horizontal surface. Initially the spring is in its natural length
    and the block is released from rest. The average force acting on the surface
    by the spring till the instant when the block has zero acceleration for the first
    time is
    (A)
    mg
    (B)
    2mg
    k
    m
    (C)
    3mg
    (D)
    4mg
    3. The gas inside a spherical bubble expands uniformly and slowly so that its radius increases from
    R to 2R. Let the atmospheric pressure be p
    0
    and surface tension be S. The work done by the gas
    in the process is
    (A)
    3
    0
    28 p R
    3
    + 24SR
    2
    (B)
    3
    0
    25 p R
    3
    + 24SR
    2
    (C)
    3
    2
    0
    25 p R
    23 SR
    3 2
    (D) None of these
    Space for Rough work

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    4. A block of mass M is hanging over a smooth and light pulley through a light string. The other end
    of the string is pulled by a constant force F. If kinetic energy of the block increases by 20 J in 1s.
    Then
    (A) tension in the string is Mg.
    (B) tension in the string is F
    (C) Work done by the tension on the block is 20 J in 1 sec.
    (D) Work done by the force of gravity is 20 J in 1 sec.
    5. A circular ring is fixed in a gravity free space and one point of the ring
    is earthed. Now a magnet is placed along axis of the ring at a distance
    from its centre such that the nearer pole is north pole as shown in
    figure. A sharp impulse is applied on the magnet so that it starts to
    move towards the ring. Then,
    (A) Initially magnet experiences an acceleration and then it retards to
    come to an instantaneous rest.
    (B) Magnet starts to oscillate about centre of the ring
    (C) Magnet continuous to move along the axis with constant velocity
    (D) The magnet retards and comes to rest finally.
    S
    N
    6. A block of mass m is suspended by means of an ideal spring of force constant
    k from ceiling of a car which is moving along a circular path of radius ‘r’ with
    acceleration ‘a’. The time period of oscillation of the block when it is displaced
    along the spring, will be
    (A) 2
    mg ma
    k
    (B) 2
    2 2
    m
    k g a
    (C) 2
    m
    k
    (D) 2
    2 2 2
    m
    k g a
    m
    7. In the hydrogen atom spectrum
    3-1
    and
    2-1
    represent wavelengths emitted due to transition from
    second and first excited states to the ground state respectively. The value of
    3 1
    2 1
    is
    (A) 27 / 32 (B) 32/27
    (C) 4/9 (D) 9/4
    8. A block of mass 1 kg is pulled along the curve path ACB by a tangential
    force as shown in figure. The work done by the frictional force when the
    block moves from A to B is
    (A) 5 J (B) 10 J
    (C) 20 J (D) none of these
    =0.2
    C
    A
    B
    X=10m
    Space for Rough work

    Page 4

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    Paragraph Type
    This section contains 8 multiple choice questions relating to four paragraphs with two questions on
    each paragraph. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
    correct.
    Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10
    Three metallic plates out of which middle is given charge Q as shown in the
    figure. The outer plates can be earthed with the help of switches S
    1
    and S
    2
    .
    The area of each plates is same.
    Answer the following question based on the following passage.
    9. The charge appearing on the outer surface of extreme left plate is
    (A) (Q/2) (B) (Q/2)
    (C) Q (D) Q
    d
    3d
    s
    1 s
    2
    10. The charge that will flow to earth when only switch S
    1
    is connected to earth is
    (A) (Q/2) (B) (Q/2)
    (C) Q (D) Q
    Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12
    A block of mass 2m is hanging at the lower end of a rope of mass m and length the , the
    other end being fixed to the ceiling. A pulse of wavelength
    0
    is produced at the lower end of
    the rope.
    2m
    m,
    11. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the other end of the rope is
    (A)
    0
    3
    (B)
    0
    3
    2
    (C)
    0
    (D)
    0
    2
    12. The speed of the pulse at the mid point of rope is
    (A)
    5
    g
    2
    (B)
    5
    g
    3
    (C)
    2
    g
    5
    (D)
    g
    2
    Space for Rough work

    Page 5

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    Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14
    A bike of length having its centre of mass at the middle is to turn with constant speed v [here v is the
    speed of centre of mass of the bike]. To turn, the front wheel is rotated by an angle . The coefficient of
    friction between the tyres and the road is . Assuming the bike to be vertical and it does not skid, answer
    the following questions.
    13. The radius of curvature of the centre of mass of the bike is
    (A)
    2
    4 tan
    tan
    (B)
    2
    2 tan
    tan
    (C)
    2
    4 tan
    2tan
    (D)
    2
    2 tan
    2tan
    14. The friction force acting on the bike
    (A)
    2 2
    2
    2mv tan
    4 tan
    (B)
    2 2
    2
    2mv tan
    2 tan
    (C)
    2 2
    2
    mv tan
    4 tan
    (D)
    2 2
    2
    mv tan
    4 tan
    Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16
    A cylindrical vehicle containing a gas of mass m and molecular weight M moves
    along the axis of the cylinder with constant acceleration “a”. The temperature of
    the gas is maintained constant at T
    0
    and saturated vapour pressure at this
    temperature is P
    0
    . Saturated vapour pressure is the pressure at which
    condensation starts. The cross sectional area of the cylinder is A and volume V.
    Now, answer the following questions neglecting gravity and assuming the
    pressure at the front face to be zero & varies linearly from P to Q.
    a
    P
    Q
    15. The maximum value of “a” so that no condensation takes place
    (A)
    0
    p A
    m
    (B)
    0
    p A
    2m
    (C)
    0
    2p A
    m
    (D)
    0
    3p A
    2m
    16. If a = 5p
    0
    A/m, the mass of the gas condensed is
    (A) m/2 (B) m/3
    (C) 4m/5 (D) m/5
    Space for Rough work

    Page 6

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    Matching list Type
    This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the
    lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
    17. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List – I List – II
    (P)
    Isothermal process
    (1)
    Pressure = constant
    (Q)
    Adiabatic process
    (2)
    dW = dU
    (R)
    Isochoric process
    (3)
    dU = 0
    (S)
    Isobaric process
    (4)
    dQ = dU
    Codes:
    P Q R S
    (A) 2 3 1 4
    (B) 3 2 4 1
    (C) 4 1 2 3
    (D) 2 3 4 1
    18. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List – I List – II
    (P)
    Ultraviolet light
    (1)
    N = 6 n = 3
    (Q)
    Visible light
    (2)
    N = 3 n = 1
    (R)
    Infrared radiation
    (3)
    N = 4 n = 2
    (S)
    Micro waves
    (4)
    N = 7 n = 6
    Codes:
    P Q R S
    (A) 2 3 1 4
    (B) 1 4 2 3
    (C) 4 1 2 3
    (D) 2 3 4 1
    Space for Rough work

    Page 7

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    19. Three concentric spherical metallic shells A, B, and C of radii a, b, and c (a<b<c) have charge
    densities of ,  and respectively. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer
    using the codes given below the lists:
    List – I List – II
    (P)
    The potential at A
    (1)
    2 2
    0
    a b
    c
    c c
    (Q)
    The potential at B
    (2)
    2
    0
    a
    b c
    c
    (R) The potential at C (3)
    (S) The electric field at surface of A (4)
    0
    a b c
    Codes:
    P Q R S
    (A) 2 3 1 4
    (B) 1 4 2 3
    (C) 4 1 2 3
    (D) 2 3 4 1
    20. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List – I List – II
    (P)
    Solid sphere is rolling without slipping. The
    ratio of rotational K.E. to the translational
    K.E.
    (1)
    5
    7
    (Q)
    When ring and disc both rolling without
    slipping on the inclined plane the ratio of
    their times to reach bottom.
    (2)
    2
    5
    (R)
    A solid sphere is rolling with slipping. The
    ratio of frictional force to normal reaction is
    ( = 0.25)
    (3)
    2
    3
    (S)
    The ratio of translational kinetic energy to
    the total K.E. when sphere is rolling
    without slipping on the inclined plane.
    (4)
    1
    4
    Codes:
    P Q R S
    (A) 2 3 1 4
    (B) 1 4 2 3
    (C) 4 1 2 3
    (D) 2 3 4 1
    Space for Rough work

    Page 8

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    Chemistry PART – II
    SECTION – A
    Straight Objective Type
    This section contains 8 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices (A),
    (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
    1. Sometimes yellow turbidity appears while passing H
    2
    S gas even in the absence of IInd group of
    basic radicals. Which of the following is/are not correct justification for the aforesaid observation?
    (A) Sulphur is present in the mixture as impurity
    (B) IV group radicals are precipitated as sulphides
    (C) H
    2
    S (g) is oxidized by some acid radicals
    (D) IIIrd group radicals are precipitated as hydroxides
    2.
    5
    PCl
    m CPBA
    Product s
     
    C C
    CH
    3
    H CH
    3
    H
    (A) The product is
    H
    3
    CHC CHCH
    3
    Cl Cl
    (B)
    The product is
    H
    3
    CHC CHCH
    3
    Cl OPCl
    3
    (C) The product is optically active
    (D) The product is optically inactive
    3. Which of the following is / are correct matches?
    Column – I (Trend) Column – II (Characteristic/Property)
    (A) NaNO
    3
    > KNO
    3
    > RbNO
    3
    (p) Thermal stability
    (B) MgO > SnO > B
    2
    O
    3
    (q) Basic nature
    (C) NaHCO
    3
    < KHCO
    3
    < RbHCO
    3
    (r) Solubility in H
    2
    O
    (D) AlF
    3
    > AlCl
    3
    > AlBr
    3
    (s) Melting point
    4. For the cell:
    2
    Tl s | Tl 0.001M || Cu 0.1M | Cu s
    ;
    E
    cell
    = 0.83 V at 298 K. The cell potential can be increased by
    (A) increasing [Cu
    2+
    ] (B) increasing [Tl
    +
    ]
    (C) decreasing [Cu
    2+
    ] (D) decreasing [Tl
    +
    ]
    Space for Rough work

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    5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
    (A) The equivalent conductance of strong and weak electrolytes increases on dilution.
    (B) The increase in equivalent conductance of strong and weak electrolytes on dilution is due to
    increase in number of ions.
    (C) If CH
    3
    COOH(aq) is separated from pure water by semipermeable membrane, then equivalent
    conductance of solution increases gradually and ultimately becomes constant.
    (D) (B) and (C) both are incorrect.
    6. 34.1 gm Pb
    3
    O
    4
    is dissolved in 500 ml of 4M HNO
    3
    , then (M
    Pb
    = 206 gm/mole)
    (A) There is no residue
    (B) The weight of residue is 11.9 gm
    (C) 300 ml of 6 M NaOH is required to neutralise excess of HNO
    3
    (D) Total 2.2 moles of NaOH are used after reaction of Pb
    3
    O
    4
    with HNO
    3
    7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
    (A) During electrophoresis, colloidal particles move under influence of electric field.
    (B) Suspensions are opaque and they do not show Tyndell effect.
    (C) Higher is the coagulating power of an electrolyte, higher is its coagulation value.
    (D) 50 ml of standard gold sol needs 0.05 mg of gelation or 125 mg of starch, for its protection
    from coagulation by 1 ml, 10% NaCl solution, it means gold number of starch is more than
    that of gelation and is better protective agent than gelation.
    8. A balloon blown up with 1 mole of a gas, has a volume of 480 ml to 5
    o
    C. If the balloon is filled to
    7
    th
    8
    of its maximum capacity, then which of the following options is/are correct?
    (A) The balloon will burst at 30
    o
    C
    (B) The pressure of the gas inside the balloon at 5
    o
    C is 47.5 atm
    (C) The minimum temperature at which the balloon will burst is 44.71
    o
    C
    (D) The pressure of gas when balloon burst at minimum temperature is 50 atm
    Space for Rough work

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